I mostly have a question if you don't mind. When Joseph Smith translated the Book of Mormon why did he use a 16-17 century English rather than the one of his time 19 century?
Possibly he thought to make it sound Biblical in order to get more converts to it. There are some that think because it sounds like the Bible it must be true.
That is a standard non believing and cynical answer.
But I tend to believe because, among other things, additional scripture matching the Book of Mormon is mentioned in the Bible and LDS doctrine is the only Christian doctrine that is not in conflict with the Bible. Historically, we seem to have restored many of the original doctrines extant in the early Christian Church and that matches well the Bible predicted Universal Apostasy and future Restoration.
Why should I have to believe in the Mormon book in order to have an opinion about it? You said for yourself that you don't think anyone knows and I guess this includes the Mormons too so what is the reason?
Name: David
Country:
Comments: The speech of Joseph Smith was structured in Hebraisms, meaning they are Hebrew structured sentences, which by the way, he couldn't have known about unless he was a linguist and understood Hebrew. The Bible has Hebraisms in it because it was written by scholars who understood the structure and tried to accurately place items in their proper place.
The fact that Joseph Smith with a third grade education and no access to higher learning was able to skillfully execute these Hebraisms in The Book of Mormon is just further proof of the divine nature of it's translation.
Source 1: Daniel C. Peterson PHD. BYU
When you said "...non believing and cynical answer." In stating my opinion you wanted to assume the grounds behind it even though you did not know the answer for yourself. This is one of the things I find strange about Mormon beliefs, answers for everything except the most obvious ones.